The literary record of Christianity does not attest to a Roman empire until the time of Luke, Acts, and John, which were published around 170 CE - two centuries after the empire was supposedly founded.
>In the original Greek text of the gospels, Caesar is written as Kaisar. I think this word derives not from some dude named Julius
But what an interesting coincidence that that is how his name would be pronounced. Latin pronounciation changed in the Middle Ages, back then "c" was pronounced "k". Also the Byzantine empire used to call the heir to the throne kaisar like 1500 years later. Caesar's name is more likely than an Akkadian term. Why would Greek speakers use Akkadian?
Pilatus was a cognomen, which were sometimes hereditary and sometimes nicknames. A soldier skilled with the javelin would be called so. I don't think Mark was thinking in Latin. And there is a big difference between a javelin, an impalement stake and a stavros. The stavros was really thick.
Because Alexander conquered the throne of Babylon.
Any thoughts as to why the Greek histories including Philo, Josephus’ Wars, Plutarch’s Lives, and Appian’s Wars only refer to Caesar or Gaius Caesar and not Julius Caesar?
This is the most stupid thing I've read in a long time. The old classical pronunciation of Caesar is Kaisar. The modern German word for an emperor is Kaiser, which directly comes from the Latin Caesar.
Fascinating. What do you think this means? I mean, the Roman Empire was in Palestine at the time of Jesus existence, or purported existence, right? Why would it not be mentioned in the earliest writings that mention Jesus?
>In the original Greek text of the gospels, Caesar is written as Kaisar. I think this word derives not from some dude named Julius
But what an interesting coincidence that that is how his name would be pronounced. Latin pronounciation changed in the Middle Ages, back then "c" was pronounced "k". Also the Byzantine empire used to call the heir to the throne kaisar like 1500 years later. Caesar's name is more likely than an Akkadian term. Why would Greek speakers use Akkadian?
It's true that the Greek word for cross, stavros, meals pole because most crucifictions looked like this: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crucifixion#/media/File:Justus_Lipsius_Crux_Simplex_1629.jpg still it is not impalement.
Pilatus was a cognomen, which were sometimes hereditary and sometimes nicknames. A soldier skilled with the javelin would be called so. I don't think Mark was thinking in Latin. And there is a big difference between a javelin, an impalement stake and a stavros. The stavros was really thick.
“Why would Greek speakers use Akkadian?”
Because Alexander conquered the throne of Babylon.
Any thoughts as to why the Greek histories including Philo, Josephus’ Wars, Plutarch’s Lives, and Appian’s Wars only refer to Caesar or Gaius Caesar and not Julius Caesar?
You are retarded
Ah well in that case, you are extremely erudite and articulate.
Will you shut up man
This is the most stupid thing I've read in a long time. The old classical pronunciation of Caesar is Kaisar. The modern German word for an emperor is Kaiser, which directly comes from the Latin Caesar.
Kaisar is a Greek word dumbass.
You're an uneducated peasant.
https://www.youtube.com/shorts/39mJx0zHLwo
This is stupid.
Fascinating. What do you think this means? I mean, the Roman Empire was in Palestine at the time of Jesus existence, or purported existence, right? Why would it not be mentioned in the earliest writings that mention Jesus?